Pharmacology of agents affecting organs and systems function. Hormones, vitamin s, anti inflammatory, antiallergic, immunotropic and enzymic agents




НазваниеPharmacology of agents affecting organs and systems function. Hormones, vitamin s, anti inflammatory, antiallergic, immunotropic and enzymic agents
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Modul 2.

Pharmacology of agents affecting organs and systems function. Hormones, vitamins, anti-inflammatory, antiallergic, immunotropic and enzymic agents

Text test questions


  1. Disadvantages concerning oral drugs administration (all answers are correct EXCEPT):

    1. The drug taken orally has the highest bioavailability*

    2. The drug taken orally may cause emesis

    3. The drug taken orally may be destroyed by gastric acidity

    4. The drug taken orally may be metabolized by gastrointestinal flora

    5. The drug taken orally may be in consistently absorbed due to the presence of food

  2. Which of the following drug-mechanism of action pairs is properly matched?

    1. digoxin - inhibits Na+- K+ ATPase pump*

    2. dobutamine - inhibits MAO

    3. amrinone - inhibits ACE

    4. dopamine - inhibits ACE

    5. acebutolol - stimulate beta2-adrenergic receptors

  3. Indications for glucocorticoid administration (all answers are correct, except one):

    1. Shock

    2. Hypertensive disease*

    3. Allergic diseases

    4. Inflammatory diseases

    5. Complicated intoxications

  4. What pharmacological effect is not character for Prednisolone:

    1. Vasodilation*

    2. Antiallergic

    3. Anti-inflammatory

    4. Immunosuppressant

    5. Antitoxic

  5. Calcium channel blocker for arrhythmia treatment is

    1. Verapamil*

    2. Metoprolol

    3. Dipiridamole

    4. Aspirin

    5. Captopril

  6. Reflex tachycardia is associated with such group of drugs

    1. cholinoblockers

    2. calcium channel blockers*

    3. beta 2 – agonists

    4. ACE–inhibitors

    5. M-cholinoreceptors agonists

  7. Reflex tachycardia is associated with such drug

    1. Propranolol

    2. Metoprolol

    3. Nifedipine*

    4. Timolol

    5. Salbutamol

  8. Prinzmetal’s angina, variant angina, hypertension, paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia – the pathological statuses which need uses of

    1. Lozartan

    2. Captopril

    3. Nitroglycerin

    4. Diltiazem*

    5. Dopamine

  9. A drug of a first choice for acute angina attack is:

    1. Atenolol

    2. Captopril

    3. Diltiazem

    4. Dopamine

    5. Nitroglycerin*

  10. Indicate an antihistaminic agent that does not cause expressed sedative action

    1. Suprastine

    2. Diprasine

    3. Dimedrole

    4. Paracetamol

    5. Diazoline*

  11. A patient diagnosed with a deep venous thrombosis is begun on a heparin infusion of 1000 U/HR after a 5000 U Bolus. Duration of action of heparin is:

    1. 4 hours*

    2. 10 hours

    3. 12 hours

    4. 24 hours

    5. None of the above

  12. The direct-acting plasminogen activator and fibrinolitic drug is:

    1. streptomicine

    2. urokinase*

    3. epsilon-aminocaproic acid

    4. vikasol

    5. heparin

  13. The antithrombotic drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase enzymes is:

    1. prednisone

    2. dipyridamole

    3. ascorbic acid

    4. aspirin*

    5. vikasol

  14. Correct statements about the action of warfarin include: 1.warfarin is not structurally similar to vitamin K; 2. warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase; 3. the onset of warfarin action may be prolonged due to the long half-life of factor VII; 4. strong headache may appear if warfarin is administered in therapeutic doses

    1. 1,2,3

    2. 1,3

    3. 2,4*

    4. 4 only

    5. All of the above

  15. Manifestations of overdose with dimedrole may include:

    1. blurred vision

    2. dry mouth

    3. hallucinations

    4. sinus tachycardia

    5. All of the above*

  16. Histamine-1 receptor antagonists include:

    1. ranitidine

    2. nizatidine

    3. famotidine

    4. terfenadine*

    5. cimetidine

  17. An agent used to decrease LDL (low density lipoproteins) is:

    1. lovastatin*

    2. neomycin

    3. aspirin

    4. nitroglycerine

    5. paracetamol

  18. Gallstones, abdominal pain and myalgia are side effects of such lipid-lowering drug:

    1. neomycin

    2. aspirine

    3. levamisole

    4. ascorbinic acid

    5. clofibrate*

  19. Indicate lipid-lowering drug which indirectly enhance the activity of the hepatic enzyme HMG CoA reductase:

    1. paracetamol

    2. L-thyroxine

    3. cholestyramine*

    4. levomycetine

    5. gentamycine

  20. Agents primarily used to treat hypercholesterolemia which work by inhibiting the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme include:

    1. lovastatin*

    2. gentamycine

    3. nialamide

    4. ascorbinic acid

    5. amlodipine

  21. The agent which is thought to lower triglycerides by inhibiting hepatic VLDL (very low density lipoproteins) secretion and suppressing VLDL synthesis is:

    1. neomycin

    2. nicotinic acid*

    3. fluconasole

    4. caffeine

    5. beta adrenoblocker

  22. Gynecomastia, hyperkalemia, and menstrual abnormalities are potential adverse effects associated with such diuretic drug:

    1. Furosemide

    2. captopril

    3. acebutolol

    4. Spironolactone*

    5. digitoxine

  23. Diuretic which may result hypokalemia when used in a patient not receiving potassium supplementation include:

    1. spironolactone

    2. Furosemide*

    3. triamterene

    4. Potassium chloride

    5. None of the above

  24. 24. Beta blockers which are relatively cardioselective include: 1. metoprolol 2. propranolol(anapriline) 3. atenolol 4. amlodipine

    1. 1,2,3

    2. 1,3*

    3. 2,4

    4. 4 only

    5. All are correct

  25. Propranolol may cause all of the following EXCEPT:

    1. bradycardia

    2. bronchiolar constriction

    3. bronchiolar dilation*

    4. reduced myocardial contractility

  26. A 48-year old salesman with hypertension complaints on mood disorders and depression. His blood pressure is normal. Which antihypertensive drug most likely to be the cause of his new complaints:

    1. papaverine

    2. acebutolol

    3. Reserpine*

    4. hydrochlorothiazide

    5. guanidine

  27. Clonidine hydrochloride (clofeline) lowers blood pressure by reducing sympathetic tone. It is believed to act by inhibiting sympathetic outflow from the vasomotor center in the medulla. A potentially serious adverse reaction that has been reported is:

    1. myelosuppression

    2. anemia

    3. irreversible nephrotoxicity

    4. withdrawal syndrome resembling hypertensive crisis *

    5. systemic lupus erythematosus

  28. Propranolol produces most of its important effects by antagonizing the beta adrenergic effects of catecholamines released by sympathetic nerve stimulation or from the adrenal medulla. It therefore results in all of the following EXCEPT:

    1. negative inotropic effect on the heart

    2. bronchoconstriction

    3. lowering plasma renin activity*

    4. strong diuretic effect

    5. negative chronotropic effect on the heart

  29. An agent which produces its antihypertensive effect by blocking autonomic ganglia, thus lowering the sympathetic tone of blood vessels, is:

    1. hygronium*

    2. diazoline

    3. aspirin

    4. nifedipine

    5. alpha-methyldopa

  30. The most useful drugs in the long-term treatment of essential hypertension, which decrease the quantity of sodium ions in blood vessels and eliminate them via the kidneys are:

    1. thiazide diuretics*

    2. osmotic diuretics

    3. Sympatholitics

    4. sedative agents

    5. Cardiac glycosides

  31. Antihypertensive agents have different modes of action. The expected onset of action of IV nitroprusside is:

    1. seconds*

    2. 45 minutes

    3. 15 to 30 minutes

    4. several hours

    5. 12 to 24 hours

  32. Antihypertensive agents must be used with caution. The medical condition for which propranolol is most contraindicated is:

    1. renal insufficiency

    2. congestive heart failure

    3. mental depression

    4. liver disease

    5. asthma*

  33. Antihypertensive agents must be used with caution. The medical condition for which Reserpine is most contraindicated is:

    1. renal insufficiency

    2. coronary insufficiency

    3. mental depression*

    4. liver disease

    5. asthma

  34. Propranolol is a potent blocker of beta-adrenergic sympathetic activity. It has been found to be detrimental, however, in patients with:

    1. bronchial asthma*

    2. hypertension

    3. hyperthyroidism

    4. atrial fibrillation

    5. ventricular arrhythmias

  35. It is important to understand the mechanism of action of the various drugs used in the treatment of hypertension. The antihypertensive action of propranolol involves all of the following EXCEPT:

    1. decreased stroke volume

    2. inhibition of renin releas

    3. block adrenergic receptors

    4. depletion (decrease of syntesis) of catecholamines*

    5. decreased heart rate

  36. Propranolol is indicated in all of the following EXCEPT:

    1. bronchial asthma*

    2. Tachycardia

    3. IHD

    4. Hypertensive disease

    5. hyperthyroidism

  37. Tachycardia is a prominent side effect of:

    1. nifedipine*

    2. aspirin

    3. acebutolol

    4. all of above

    5. None of above

  38. A diuretic agent which is associated with hearing loss is:

    1. spironolactone

    2. triamterene

    3. Furosemide*

    4. digitoxine

    5. glucose

  39. A diuretic agent which is antagonist of aldosterone, it is potassium sparing:

    1. Spironolactone*

    2. Furosemide

    3. ethacrynic acid

    4. chlorothiazide

    5. glucose

  40. The potassium sparing diuretic agent which acts by inhibiting aldosterone at the distal tubular renal cell is:

    1. Spironolactone*

    2. Furosemide

    3. ethacrynic acid

    4. chlorothiazide

    5. digitoxine

  41. A diuretic agent which is potassium-sparing and does not depend upon the adrenal cortex for action is:

    1. furosemide

    2. triamterene*

    3. ethacrynic acid

    4. chlorothiazide

    5. teophylline

  42. Which of the following diuretic agents may produce hypokalemic alkalosis but is a very useful drug in the treatment of volume-dependent hypertension?

    1. spironolactone

    2. triamterene

    3. aspirine

    4. dichlothyazide*

    5. teophylline

  43. Complications of treatment of edema with thiazides include all of the following EXCEPT:

    1. hyperuricemia

    2. hyperkalemia*

    3. hyperglycemia

    4. hyponatremia

    5. alkalosis

  44. Which of the following diuretics may cause hyperkalemia:

    1. ethacrynic acid

    2. furosemide

    3. thiazides

    4. triamterene*

    5. teophylline

  45. Triamterene…:

    1. antagonizes aldosterone

    2. can produce systemic hyperkalemia*

    3. is classified as a sodium-sparing diuretic

    4. is of no clinical usefulness

    5. has diuretic activity as furosemide

  46. Which of the following drugs may be hazardous if give to a patient receiving spironolactone?

    1. epinephrine

    2. propranolol

    3. potassium chloride*

    4. monoamine oxidase inhibitors

    5. All of the above

  47. A side effect of spironolactone, when utilized to treat hypertension is:

    1. hyperkalemia*

    2. acne

    3. hypomagnesemia

    4. male pattern baldness

    5. bronchospasm

  48. The principle site of action of furosemide is the:

    1. ascending loop of Henle*

    2. All of abole

    3. proximal tubule

    4. distal tubule

    5. None of the above

  49. The site of action of mannitol is:

    1. loop of Henle

    2. All of above

    3. tubule of kidney*

    4. liver

    5. None of the above

  50. Antihistaminic preparation with somnolent effect

    1. Phenobarbital

    2. Dimedrole*

    3. Sodium oxybutas

    4. Bromisovale

    5. Diazepam

  51. Agents for treatment of anaphylactic shock

    1. Anaprilin

    2. Adrenaline*

    3. Morphine

    4. Codeine

    5. Analgine

  52. Mechanism of antiallergic actions of antihistaminic preparations is

    1. Inactivation of histamine

    2. Block cholinoreceptor of peripheral ganglions

    3. Block of Н1-histamine receptors*

    4. Activation of Н2-histamine receptors

    5. Diminish formation of antibodies

  53. Indicate antihistaminic drug without sedative effect

    1. Tavegil

    2. Diazoline*

    3. Dimedrole

    4. Suprastine

    5. Diprasine

  54. Agents, applied in therapy immediate allergic reactions are

    1. Analeptics

    2. Adrenomimetics*

    3. Sympathomimetics

    4. Cholinomimetics

    5. NSAID

  55. Hormonal preparation applied in case of immediate allergic reactions

    1. Insulin

    2. Tireoidine

    3. Vasopressine

    4. Dexametasone*

    5. Cromoline sodium

  56. Indicate, that characteristically for Diazoline

    1. Acts shortly

    2. Connect with Н2-histamine receptors

    3. Stimulate secretion of salivary glands

    4. Does not penetrate through BBB (blood brain barrier)*

    5. Possesses expressed sedative action

  57. Indicate a distinctive property of Dimedrole and Diprasine

    1. Stimulate histamine Н1-receptors

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